Hi everyone, so in 2019 I had a colonoscopy where inflammation and a superficial ulcer in terminal ileum was found. The dr said it was suggestive of crohns. A couple years later I had a capsule endoscopy done and which also found a superficial ulcer in the same area and there was inflammation too, which was suggestive of crohns.
I am now seeing a different dr who believes i might have crohns by looking at my previous results, but he wanted to do his own tests. So today I had a colonoscopy/gastroscopy where no ulcers were found and no inflammation was found in the terminal ileum. But there was some inflammation in the colon, but my dr didnt specify the location. I was given a report that said congested hyperemic peri-appendiceal mucosa and that biopsies were taken. I think this might be the area that is inflamed, but unsure?
My questions are, can superficial ulcers that were previously there heal and no longer be present and if so, can you still have crohns disease without ulcers?
Has anyone experienced inflammation no longer in one location and now in another, yet still have IBD?
I'm so confused and not too sure what to think.